C---,
Matthew 28:19, especially the second half of the verse baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, is interesting and, as it happens, relevant to the Trinity for two reasons. First, because the text draws attention to the three: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. And second, because at the same time the text draws attention to their unity. For the passage reads in the name (singular), implying the three are also one, and not in the names (plural), implying the three are only three. Therefore, since the three share a single name, Matthew seems to suggest the three share a single nature, which in this case would be the one, infinite Divine Essence.
John agrees with this when he says at the start of his Gospel In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (1:1). In the same prologue John says that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us and, immediately after this, begins talking about Jesus. Therefore, according to John, Jesus is the Word. Returning to the opening passage, then, we can find three statements made about this Word: (1) this Word existed in the beginning; (2) this Word was with God; and (3) this Word was God. Since Jesus is, as John says, the Word, John the apostle must have believed that Jesus existed in the beginning, was with God, and was God. Consequently, it is not true that Jesus is nowhere called God in Scripture.
In fact, after he sees the risen Christ, the apostle Thomas cries out to him My Lord and my God! (John 20:28). Notice Jesus' reaction in the next verse: Jesus said to him, "Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe." Now everyone who reads the gospels, Christian or not, will admit that Jesus was a good man. His goodness stands out as at least equal, humanly speaking, to the other great religious and spiritual leaders of the world. But good men do not deliberately mislead others - for if they did, they would not be good. Therefore, since Jesus does not rebuke or correct Thomas's claim for Jesus' own divinity, Jesus must have believed it himself. For if Jesus were not God but merely a good man, he would have rebuked Thomas's idolatry, since idolatry is wrong.
There is more Scriptural evidence for Jesus' divinity and if you look online, I'm sure you can find more evidence and arguments. However, turning to your next question, I notice that the passages you ask me to explain divide into two categories: (1) Old Testament references to the Nephilim who are called the "sons of God" (Gen 6:2 and 6:4), and (2) New Testament references to Christians who are called the "sons of God". As for the first, the Nephilim, I cannot help you there. I'm fascinated by the Genesis passage, but I cannot adequately explain or fully understand it. As for the second, I may be able to offer some helpful thoughts. Your last reference was to Galatians 3, which reads
Peace, etc.
Matthew 28:19, especially the second half of the verse baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, is interesting and, as it happens, relevant to the Trinity for two reasons. First, because the text draws attention to the three: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. And second, because at the same time the text draws attention to their unity. For the passage reads in the name (singular), implying the three are also one, and not in the names (plural), implying the three are only three. Therefore, since the three share a single name, Matthew seems to suggest the three share a single nature, which in this case would be the one, infinite Divine Essence.
John agrees with this when he says at the start of his Gospel In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (1:1). In the same prologue John says that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us and, immediately after this, begins talking about Jesus. Therefore, according to John, Jesus is the Word. Returning to the opening passage, then, we can find three statements made about this Word: (1) this Word existed in the beginning; (2) this Word was with God; and (3) this Word was God. Since Jesus is, as John says, the Word, John the apostle must have believed that Jesus existed in the beginning, was with God, and was God. Consequently, it is not true that Jesus is nowhere called God in Scripture.
In fact, after he sees the risen Christ, the apostle Thomas cries out to him My Lord and my God! (John 20:28). Notice Jesus' reaction in the next verse: Jesus said to him, "Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe." Now everyone who reads the gospels, Christian or not, will admit that Jesus was a good man. His goodness stands out as at least equal, humanly speaking, to the other great religious and spiritual leaders of the world. But good men do not deliberately mislead others - for if they did, they would not be good. Therefore, since Jesus does not rebuke or correct Thomas's claim for Jesus' own divinity, Jesus must have believed it himself. For if Jesus were not God but merely a good man, he would have rebuked Thomas's idolatry, since idolatry is wrong.
There is more Scriptural evidence for Jesus' divinity and if you look online, I'm sure you can find more evidence and arguments. However, turning to your next question, I notice that the passages you ask me to explain divide into two categories: (1) Old Testament references to the Nephilim who are called the "sons of God" (Gen 6:2 and 6:4), and (2) New Testament references to Christians who are called the "sons of God". As for the first, the Nephilim, I cannot help you there. I'm fascinated by the Genesis passage, but I cannot adequately explain or fully understand it. As for the second, I may be able to offer some helpful thoughts. Your last reference was to Galatians 3, which reads
You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.It is clear from the context that by "sons of God" Paul is referring to Christians who believe and are baptized. Paul seems to refer to them in this way because, as the first verse you quoted explains, those who follow the will of the Father belong to the family of Christ. In other words, by following God's will we become God's children and heirs to his kingdom. For since the mission of Jesus was to restore sinful mankind to the sinless God, God the Son became man that men might as sons become filled inwardly with God. Therefore, it was the incarnation of the Son, whom John calls the only-begotten (1:18, 3:16), that allows men and women to become the adopted sons and daughters of the Most High. In his letter to the Galatians, Paul explains,
But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law, to redeem those under law, that we might receive the full rights of sons. Because you are sons, God sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, the Spirit who calls out, "Abba, Father." So you are no longer a slave, but a son; and since you are a son, God has made you also an heir. (1:4-7)Does that answer your question?
Peace, etc.
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